CPO 2024 Prelims Polity Part 2
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Exam | CPO (Prelims) |
Year | 2024 |
Subject | Polity |
Part | 2 |
Questions | 25 |
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that, where the same person is appointed as the Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him/her shall be allocated among those states?
Correct
➤ Governor’s Emoluments and Allowances in Case of Multiple States – Article 158 of the Indian Constitution states that if the same person is appointed as the Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him/her shall be allocated among those states in a manner determined by the President of India.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 158:
⇒ The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.
⇒ The Governor’s salary and allowances cannot be reduced during his tenure.
⇒ If a person is appointed as the Governor for multiple states, then the expenses for his salary and allowances shall be shared by those states, as decided by the President.Incorrect
➤ Governor’s Emoluments and Allowances in Case of Multiple States – Article 158 of the Indian Constitution states that if the same person is appointed as the Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him/her shall be allocated among those states in a manner determined by the President of India.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 158:
⇒ The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.
⇒ The Governor’s salary and allowances cannot be reduced during his tenure.
⇒ If a person is appointed as the Governor for multiple states, then the expenses for his salary and allowances shall be shared by those states, as decided by the President. -
Question 2 of 25
2. Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?
A. Original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States.
B. Appellate Jurisdiction extends when the Union plus some States are one side and some other States on the other side of the dispute.
C. Under Articles 129 and 142 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has been vested with the power to punish for contempt of court.
D. As of now, the International Commercial Arbitration cannot be initiated in the Supreme Court.Correct
➤ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India – The Supreme Court of India has three main jurisdictions: Original, Appellate, and Advisory.
➤ Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 131) extends to disputes between:
⇒ The Government of India and one or more States.
⇒ The Government of India and any State(s) on one side and one or more States on the other.
⇒ Two or more States.
➤ Appellate jurisdiction (under Articles 132, 133, and 134) allows appeals on constitutional, civil, and criminal matters from High Courts to the Supreme Court. However, it does not extend to cases where the Union plus some States are on one side and some other States on the other.
➤ Articles 129 and 142 grant the Supreme Court the power to punish for contempt of itself and ensure the enforcement of its orders.
➤ International Commercial Arbitration can be initiated in the Supreme Court under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, particularly under Part II, which deals with enforcement of foreign arbitral awards.Incorrect
➤ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India – The Supreme Court of India has three main jurisdictions: Original, Appellate, and Advisory.
➤ Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 131) extends to disputes between:
⇒ The Government of India and one or more States.
⇒ The Government of India and any State(s) on one side and one or more States on the other.
⇒ Two or more States.
➤ Appellate jurisdiction (under Articles 132, 133, and 134) allows appeals on constitutional, civil, and criminal matters from High Courts to the Supreme Court. However, it does not extend to cases where the Union plus some States are on one side and some other States on the other.
➤ Articles 129 and 142 grant the Supreme Court the power to punish for contempt of itself and ensure the enforcement of its orders.
➤ International Commercial Arbitration can be initiated in the Supreme Court under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, particularly under Part II, which deals with enforcement of foreign arbitral awards. -
Question 3 of 25
3. Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding conditions required to recognise as a political party in India?
A. If a political party is treated as a recognised political party in four or more States, it shall be known as a ‘National Party’ throughout the whole of India.
B. If a political party is treated as a recognised political party in less than four States, it shall be known as a ‘State Party’ in the State or States in which it is so recognised.
C. National Parties need only one proposer for filing the nomination and are also entitled for two sets of electoral rolls free of cost.Correct
➤ Recognition of Political Parties in India – The Election Commission of India (ECI) lays down the conditions for recognizing political parties as National Parties or State Parties under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
⇒ A political party is recognized as a National Party if it is a recognized State Party in four or more states. This grants it a nationwide status with special benefits like a common election symbol across India.
⇒ A political party that does not meet the criteria for a National Party but is recognized in less than four states is called a State Party in those respective states.
⇒ National Parties enjoy several privileges, including:
→ Only one proposer required for filing nomination papers (instead of ten for other candidates).
→ Two sets of electoral rolls provided free of cost to the party.Incorrect
➤ Recognition of Political Parties in India – The Election Commission of India (ECI) lays down the conditions for recognizing political parties as National Parties or State Parties under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
⇒ A political party is recognized as a National Party if it is a recognized State Party in four or more states. This grants it a nationwide status with special benefits like a common election symbol across India.
⇒ A political party that does not meet the criteria for a National Party but is recognized in less than four states is called a State Party in those respective states.
⇒ National Parties enjoy several privileges, including:
→ Only one proposer required for filing nomination papers (instead of ten for other candidates).
→ Two sets of electoral rolls provided free of cost to the party. -
Question 4 of 25
4. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Correct
➤ Salaries and Allowances of Presiding Officers – The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are mentioned in Article 97 of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Article 97 states that the salaries, allowances, and privileges of these presiding officers shall be determined by Parliament by law, and until such provision is made, they shall be as specified in the Second Schedule of the Constitution.Incorrect
➤ Salaries and Allowances of Presiding Officers – The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are mentioned in Article 97 of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Article 97 states that the salaries, allowances, and privileges of these presiding officers shall be determined by Parliament by law, and until such provision is made, they shall be as specified in the Second Schedule of the Constitution. -
Question 5 of 25
5. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘All the executive action of the Government of a state shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor’?
Correct
➤ Executive Actions in the Name of the Governor – Article 166(1) of the Indian Constitution states that all executive actions of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor.
⇒ This means that official orders, decisions, and policies of the State Government must be formally issued under the authority of the Governor, even though they are executed by ministers or officers.Incorrect
➤ Executive Actions in the Name of the Governor – Article 166(1) of the Indian Constitution states that all executive actions of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor.
⇒ This means that official orders, decisions, and policies of the State Government must be formally issued under the authority of the Governor, even though they are executed by ministers or officers. -
Question 6 of 25
6. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the right of the Governor to address and to send messages to the House (or Houses) of the state legislature?
Correct
➤ Governor’s Right to Address and Send Messages to the State Legislature – Article 175 of the Indian Constitution provides the Governor with the right to address and send messages to the House (or Houses) of the State Legislature.
⇒ The Governor can address the legislature and send messages regarding a bill or any other matter.
⇒ The legislature must consider any message sent by the Governor with priority.Incorrect
➤ Governor’s Right to Address and Send Messages to the State Legislature – Article 175 of the Indian Constitution provides the Governor with the right to address and send messages to the House (or Houses) of the State Legislature.
⇒ The Governor can address the legislature and send messages regarding a bill or any other matter.
⇒ The legislature must consider any message sent by the Governor with priority. -
Question 7 of 25
7. Question
In which of the following schedules of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is the most common wild cat in India ‘Felis chaus’ listed?
Correct
➤ Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and Felis chaus (Jungle Cat) – The Jungle Cat (Felis chaus) is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
⇒ Schedule II provides protection against hunting, but animals under this schedule have lesser protection compared to Schedule I species.
⇒ Felis chaus (Jungle Cat) is the most common wild cat in India, found in wetlands, grasslands, and forests across the country.Incorrect
➤ Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and Felis chaus (Jungle Cat) – The Jungle Cat (Felis chaus) is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
⇒ Schedule II provides protection against hunting, but animals under this schedule have lesser protection compared to Schedule I species.
⇒ Felis chaus (Jungle Cat) is the most common wild cat in India, found in wetlands, grasslands, and forests across the country. -
Question 8 of 25
8. Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding State Legislatures?
A. Notwithstanding anything in part XVII, but subject to the provisions of Article 348, business in the Legislature of a State shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the State or in Hindi or in English.
B. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or Chairman of the Legislative Council can permit any member to speak in his mother tongue.
C. Only the Supreme Court is entitled to inquire into the proceeding of the State Legislature.Correct
➤ State Legislature and Language of Business – As per Article 210 of the Indian Constitution, the business in the Legislature of a State shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the State or in Hindi or in English, subject to Article 348.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Use of Language – The State Legislature can conduct its proceedings in its official language, Hindi, or English. However, English can continue to be used for official purposes until the Legislature decides otherwise.
⇒ Permission to Use Mother Tongue – The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or Chairman of the Legislative Council can permit a member to speak in their mother tongue if they are unable to express themselves in the official language.
⇒ Judicial Inquiry into Proceedings – Under Article 212, the courts, including the Supreme Court, are restricted from inquiring into the proceedings of the State Legislature, ensuring legislative privileges.★ Statements A and B are correct, but C is incorrect because courts cannot inquire into the proceedings of the State Legislature.
Incorrect
➤ State Legislature and Language of Business – As per Article 210 of the Indian Constitution, the business in the Legislature of a State shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the State or in Hindi or in English, subject to Article 348.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Use of Language – The State Legislature can conduct its proceedings in its official language, Hindi, or English. However, English can continue to be used for official purposes until the Legislature decides otherwise.
⇒ Permission to Use Mother Tongue – The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or Chairman of the Legislative Council can permit a member to speak in their mother tongue if they are unable to express themselves in the official language.
⇒ Judicial Inquiry into Proceedings – Under Article 212, the courts, including the Supreme Court, are restricted from inquiring into the proceedings of the State Legislature, ensuring legislative privileges.★ Statements A and B are correct, but C is incorrect because courts cannot inquire into the proceedings of the State Legislature.
-
Question 9 of 25
9. Question
As per Article _____ of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Correct
➤ Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers – As per Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that if the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Parliamentary System – India follows the Westminster model, where the executive is responsible to the legislature.
⇒ Prime Minister’s Role – The Prime Minister acts as the head of the Council of Ministers, and all ministers function under his leadership.
⇒ Vote of No Confidence – If the majority of Lok Sabha members express no confidence in the Council of Ministers, they must step down collectively.
⇒ Individual vs. Collective Responsibility – While individual ministers are responsible for their respective ministries, the entire Council of Ministers is accountable to the Lok Sabha as a whole.★ Article 75(3) ensures that the executive remains accountable to the legislature, a fundamental principle in a parliamentary democracy.
Incorrect
➤ Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers – As per Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that if the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Parliamentary System – India follows the Westminster model, where the executive is responsible to the legislature.
⇒ Prime Minister’s Role – The Prime Minister acts as the head of the Council of Ministers, and all ministers function under his leadership.
⇒ Vote of No Confidence – If the majority of Lok Sabha members express no confidence in the Council of Ministers, they must step down collectively.
⇒ Individual vs. Collective Responsibility – While individual ministers are responsible for their respective ministries, the entire Council of Ministers is accountable to the Lok Sabha as a whole.★ Article 75(3) ensures that the executive remains accountable to the legislature, a fundamental principle in a parliamentary democracy.
-
Question 10 of 25
10. Question
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States?
Correct
➤ Vice-President as Ex-Officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha – As per Article 89 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Role of Vice-President – The Vice-President of India automatically becomes the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but does not have voting rights, except in case of a tie.
⇒ Functions of the Chairman – Maintains order and discipline in Rajya Sabha, decides on points of order, and ensures smooth functioning.
⇒ Deputy Chairman – In the absence of the Vice-President, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the House.
⇒ Election of Vice-President – The Vice-President is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members.★ Article 89 establishes the Vice-President’s role as the Rajya Sabha Chairman, ensuring continuity in legislative proceedings.
Incorrect
➤ Vice-President as Ex-Officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha – As per Article 89 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Role of Vice-President – The Vice-President of India automatically becomes the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but does not have voting rights, except in case of a tie.
⇒ Functions of the Chairman – Maintains order and discipline in Rajya Sabha, decides on points of order, and ensures smooth functioning.
⇒ Deputy Chairman – In the absence of the Vice-President, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the House.
⇒ Election of Vice-President – The Vice-President is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members.★ Article 89 establishes the Vice-President’s role as the Rajya Sabha Chairman, ensuring continuity in legislative proceedings.
-
Question 11 of 25
11. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts within the territory of India?
Correct
➤ Binding Nature of Supreme Court Judgments – As per Article 141 of the Indian Constitution, the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Judicial Precedence – Supreme Court decisions act as binding precedents for all lower courts, ensuring uniformity in the interpretation of laws.
⇒ Scope – This applies to High Courts, District Courts, and all subordinate courts, ensuring consistency in judicial rulings.
⇒ Review Power – Though Supreme Court judgments are final, the court itself can review its decisions under Article 137 if necessary.
⇒ Doctrine of Stare Decisis – This principle ensures that similar cases are decided based on past Supreme Court rulings, maintaining legal stability.★ Article 141 establishes the Supreme Court as the highest authority in legal interpretation, ensuring uniform application of law across India.
Incorrect
➤ Binding Nature of Supreme Court Judgments – As per Article 141 of the Indian Constitution, the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Judicial Precedence – Supreme Court decisions act as binding precedents for all lower courts, ensuring uniformity in the interpretation of laws.
⇒ Scope – This applies to High Courts, District Courts, and all subordinate courts, ensuring consistency in judicial rulings.
⇒ Review Power – Though Supreme Court judgments are final, the court itself can review its decisions under Article 137 if necessary.
⇒ Doctrine of Stare Decisis – This principle ensures that similar cases are decided based on past Supreme Court rulings, maintaining legal stability.★ Article 141 establishes the Supreme Court as the highest authority in legal interpretation, ensuring uniform application of law across India.
-
Question 12 of 25
12. Question
Which of the following statements are correct in the context of the Indian Constitution?
1. There are three major organs of the government, namely Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
2. A separation of functions rather than powers is followed.
3. All organs of the government are independent.Correct
➤ Separation of Functions in the Indian Constitution – The Indian Constitution follows the principle of separation of functions rather than strict separation of powers among the three main organs of government.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Three Major Organs – The government consists of Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary, each with its defined functions.
⇒ Separation of Functions – Unlike the strict separation of powers seen in the U.S. Constitution, India follows a functional separation, meaning overlapping powers exist.
⇒ Interdependence – The Legislature makes laws, the Executive implements them, and the Judiciary interprets laws, but there are checks and balances between them.
⇒ Judicial Independence – While the Judiciary is independent in its functioning, the Legislature and Executive have some degree of overlap, such as in ordinance-making powers of the President (Article 123).Incorrect
➤ Separation of Functions in the Indian Constitution – The Indian Constitution follows the principle of separation of functions rather than strict separation of powers among the three main organs of government.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Three Major Organs – The government consists of Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary, each with its defined functions.
⇒ Separation of Functions – Unlike the strict separation of powers seen in the U.S. Constitution, India follows a functional separation, meaning overlapping powers exist.
⇒ Interdependence – The Legislature makes laws, the Executive implements them, and the Judiciary interprets laws, but there are checks and balances between them.
⇒ Judicial Independence – While the Judiciary is independent in its functioning, the Legislature and Executive have some degree of overlap, such as in ordinance-making powers of the President (Article 123). -
Question 13 of 25
13. Question
The advisory board under provisions of Article 22 of the Constitution is to be consisted of persons who are, or have been or are qualified to be appointed as ______.
Correct
➤ Advisory Board under Article 22 – Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention and lays down provisions for preventive detention.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Advisory Board Composition – It must consist of persons who are, have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court.
⇒ Purpose of Advisory Board – The board reviews cases of preventive detention to ensure that fundamental rights are not violated.
⇒ Time Limit for Review – If a person is detained under preventive detention, the case must be referred to the Advisory Board within 3 months.
⇒ Binding Nature – If the Advisory Board finds the detention unjustified, the detainee must be released immediately.★ Article 22 provides safeguards against arbitrary detention, but also allows preventive detention under specific conditions.
★ The Advisory Board plays a crucial role in ensuring that preventive detention laws are not misused.Incorrect
➤ Advisory Board under Article 22 – Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention and lays down provisions for preventive detention.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Advisory Board Composition – It must consist of persons who are, have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court.
⇒ Purpose of Advisory Board – The board reviews cases of preventive detention to ensure that fundamental rights are not violated.
⇒ Time Limit for Review – If a person is detained under preventive detention, the case must be referred to the Advisory Board within 3 months.
⇒ Binding Nature – If the Advisory Board finds the detention unjustified, the detainee must be released immediately.★ Article 22 provides safeguards against arbitrary detention, but also allows preventive detention under specific conditions.
★ The Advisory Board plays a crucial role in ensuring that preventive detention laws are not misused. -
Question 14 of 25
14. Question
The Swaran Singh committee had formulated ________-point code of fundamental duties.
Correct
➤ Swaran Singh Committee and Fundamental Duties – The Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976 to recommend the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Formulated an 8-Point Code of Fundamental Duties.
⇒ Final Adoption – The committee suggested 8 duties, but when the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 was passed, 10 Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution under Article 51A.
⇒ Later Addition – In 2002, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act added the 11th Fundamental Duty, making education a duty for parents and guardians.
⇒ Non-Justiciable – Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are not legally enforceable, but they serve as a moral obligation for citizens.★ Swaran Singh Committee originally proposed 8 Fundamental Duties, but the Constitution adopted 10 in 1976 and later added one more in 2002.
★ Fundamental Duties are inspired by the Constitution of the USSR (now Russia).Incorrect
➤ Swaran Singh Committee and Fundamental Duties – The Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976 to recommend the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Formulated an 8-Point Code of Fundamental Duties.
⇒ Final Adoption – The committee suggested 8 duties, but when the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 was passed, 10 Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution under Article 51A.
⇒ Later Addition – In 2002, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act added the 11th Fundamental Duty, making education a duty for parents and guardians.
⇒ Non-Justiciable – Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are not legally enforceable, but they serve as a moral obligation for citizens.★ Swaran Singh Committee originally proposed 8 Fundamental Duties, but the Constitution adopted 10 in 1976 and later added one more in 2002.
★ Fundamental Duties are inspired by the Constitution of the USSR (now Russia). -
Question 15 of 25
15. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the right of the Advocate-General of a state to speak in the State Legislature?
Correct
➤ Advocate-General and His Rights in the State Legislature – The Advocate-General of a state is the highest law officer at the state level, similar to the Attorney General of India at the national level.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Article 177 of the Indian Constitution grants the Advocate-General of a State the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the State Legislature, but without the right to vote.
⇒ Appointment – The Governor appoints the Advocate-General.
⇒ Qualifications – Must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court.
⇒ Term – Holds office during the pleasure of the Governor (no fixed tenure).
⇒ Functions – Provides legal advice to the State Government, represents the state in legal matters, and performs other duties assigned by the Governor.★ Article 177 gives the Advocate-General the right to speak in the State Legislature but not to vote.
★ The Advocate-General is the highest legal officer at the state level and is appointed by the Governor.Incorrect
➤ Advocate-General and His Rights in the State Legislature – The Advocate-General of a state is the highest law officer at the state level, similar to the Attorney General of India at the national level.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Article 177 of the Indian Constitution grants the Advocate-General of a State the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the State Legislature, but without the right to vote.
⇒ Appointment – The Governor appoints the Advocate-General.
⇒ Qualifications – Must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court.
⇒ Term – Holds office during the pleasure of the Governor (no fixed tenure).
⇒ Functions – Provides legal advice to the State Government, represents the state in legal matters, and performs other duties assigned by the Governor.★ Article 177 gives the Advocate-General the right to speak in the State Legislature but not to vote.
★ The Advocate-General is the highest legal officer at the state level and is appointed by the Governor. -
Question 16 of 25
16. Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the special powers of the Governors according to the Indian Constitution?
A. The Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility related to law and order in the State.
B. The Governor of Manipur will submit a special annual report to the President on the administration of hilly areas in the State.
C. The Governor of Sikkim shall have special responsibility for peace and for an equitable arrangement for ensuring the social and economic advancement of different sections.
D. The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh shall have special responsibility with respect to law and order in the State of Arunachal Pradesh.Correct
➤ Special Powers of Governors in Certain States – The Indian Constitution grants special responsibilities to the Governors of certain states due to historical, political, and socio-economic reasons.
➤ Key Provisions:
⇒ Governor of Nagaland – Article 371A provides the Governor special responsibility regarding law and order in the state, particularly in matters related to the Naga customary laws and land ownership rights.
⇒ Governor of Manipur – Article 371C mandates that the Governor must submit a special annual report to the President on the administration of the hilly areas in Manipur.
⇒ Governor of Sikkim – Article 371F gives the Governor special responsibility for peace and ensuring equitable social and economic advancement of different sections of the population.
⇒ Governor of Arunachal Pradesh – Article 371H provides the Governor special responsibility with respect to law and order in Arunachal Pradesh, and the Governor’s discretion is final in this matter.Incorrect
➤ Special Powers of Governors in Certain States – The Indian Constitution grants special responsibilities to the Governors of certain states due to historical, political, and socio-economic reasons.
➤ Key Provisions:
⇒ Governor of Nagaland – Article 371A provides the Governor special responsibility regarding law and order in the state, particularly in matters related to the Naga customary laws and land ownership rights.
⇒ Governor of Manipur – Article 371C mandates that the Governor must submit a special annual report to the President on the administration of the hilly areas in Manipur.
⇒ Governor of Sikkim – Article 371F gives the Governor special responsibility for peace and ensuring equitable social and economic advancement of different sections of the population.
⇒ Governor of Arunachal Pradesh – Article 371H provides the Governor special responsibility with respect to law and order in Arunachal Pradesh, and the Governor’s discretion is final in this matter. -
Question 17 of 25
17. Question
According to Dr. BR Ambedkar’s views, which of the following is the key feature of the Directive Principles of the Constitution?
Correct
➤ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on Directive Principles – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as a “novel feature” of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Key Explanation:
⇒ The Directive Principles (Part IV, Articles 36-51) are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts, but they provide guidelines for governance.
⇒ These principles aim to establish social and economic democracy, ensuring welfare, justice, and equity in society.
⇒ Ambedkar highlighted that DPSPs differentiate the Indian Constitution from others by giving clear policy directions to the state for achieving a welfare state.★ He called them a “novel feature” because they introduce unique socio-economic objectives without legal enforcement.
Incorrect
➤ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on Directive Principles – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as a “novel feature” of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Key Explanation:
⇒ The Directive Principles (Part IV, Articles 36-51) are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts, but they provide guidelines for governance.
⇒ These principles aim to establish social and economic democracy, ensuring welfare, justice, and equity in society.
⇒ Ambedkar highlighted that DPSPs differentiate the Indian Constitution from others by giving clear policy directions to the state for achieving a welfare state.★ He called them a “novel feature” because they introduce unique socio-economic objectives without legal enforcement.
-
Question 18 of 25
18. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the qualification for membership of the State Legislature?
Correct
➤ Qualification for Membership of the State Legislature – Article 173 of the Indian Constitution specifies the qualifications required for a person to become a member of the State Legislature (Vidhan Sabha or Vidhan Parishad).
➤ Key Provisions Under Article 173:
⇒ The person must be a citizen of India.
⇒ Must have attained the age of 25 years for the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and 30 years for the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
⇒ Must possess other qualifications as prescribed by Parliament.
⇒ Must not hold an office of profit under the government.
⇒ Must not be of unsound mind or insolvent.★ This article ensures that only qualified individuals can contest elections and become members of the State Legislature.
Incorrect
➤ Qualification for Membership of the State Legislature – Article 173 of the Indian Constitution specifies the qualifications required for a person to become a member of the State Legislature (Vidhan Sabha or Vidhan Parishad).
➤ Key Provisions Under Article 173:
⇒ The person must be a citizen of India.
⇒ Must have attained the age of 25 years for the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and 30 years for the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
⇒ Must possess other qualifications as prescribed by Parliament.
⇒ Must not hold an office of profit under the government.
⇒ Must not be of unsound mind or insolvent.★ This article ensures that only qualified individuals can contest elections and become members of the State Legislature.
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
In which year, for the first time, was a resolution on the National Sports Policy laid in both Houses of Parliament?
Correct
➤ First Resolution on National Sports Policy – The National Sports Policy was first introduced as a resolution in both Houses of Parliament in 1984.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ The 1984 National Sports Policy aimed to promote sports at all levels and improve India’s sports infrastructure.
⇒ It focused on mass participation, training facilities, and talent identification.
⇒ The policy emphasized the role of the government and sports federations in developing sports in the country.
⇒ Later, the 2001 and 2007 versions of the National Sports Policy were introduced with further modifications.★ This resolution marked India’s formal approach to structured sports development at the national level.
Incorrect
➤ First Resolution on National Sports Policy – The National Sports Policy was first introduced as a resolution in both Houses of Parliament in 1984.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ The 1984 National Sports Policy aimed to promote sports at all levels and improve India’s sports infrastructure.
⇒ It focused on mass participation, training facilities, and talent identification.
⇒ The policy emphasized the role of the government and sports federations in developing sports in the country.
⇒ Later, the 2001 and 2007 versions of the National Sports Policy were introduced with further modifications.★ This resolution marked India’s formal approach to structured sports development at the national level.
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Question 20 of 25
20. Question
Who among the following are eligible for free legal aid under the National Legal Services Authority?
A. A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe.
B. A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution
C. An industrial workman
D. A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disasters
E. To file any case in Supreme Court, if any person need free legal aid, the person’s annual income must be below 10 lakhs.Correct
➤ Eligibility for Free Legal Aid under the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) – The National Legal Services Authority provides free legal aid to specific categories of people as per Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
➤ Eligible Categories:
⇒ Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) – To ensure social justice and legal representation.
⇒ Victims of trafficking or forced labor (Article 23 of the Constitution) – Protecting fundamental rights against exploitation.
⇒ Industrial Workmen – Workers in industries who face legal issues related to labor laws.
⇒ Victims of Mass Disasters, Ethnic Violence, Drought, Flood, Earthquake, or Industrial Disasters – People affected by such conditions need legal assistance.Incorrect
➤ Eligibility for Free Legal Aid under the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) – The National Legal Services Authority provides free legal aid to specific categories of people as per Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
➤ Eligible Categories:
⇒ Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) – To ensure social justice and legal representation.
⇒ Victims of trafficking or forced labor (Article 23 of the Constitution) – Protecting fundamental rights against exploitation.
⇒ Industrial Workmen – Workers in industries who face legal issues related to labor laws.
⇒ Victims of Mass Disasters, Ethnic Violence, Drought, Flood, Earthquake, or Industrial Disasters – People affected by such conditions need legal assistance. -
Question 21 of 25
21. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the state’?
Correct
➤ Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Legislative Assembly – Article 164(2) of the Indian Constitution states that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.”
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Collective Responsibility – If the Legislative Assembly passes a no-confidence motion, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, must resign.
⇒ Governor’s Role – The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister.
⇒ Parliamentary System – This reflects the Westminster model of parliamentary democracy, where ministers are collectively accountable for all government policies and decisions.★ Thus, Article 164(2) ensures that the Council of Ministers remains accountable to the elected representatives of the people in a state.
Incorrect
➤ Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Legislative Assembly – Article 164(2) of the Indian Constitution states that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.”
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Collective Responsibility – If the Legislative Assembly passes a no-confidence motion, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, must resign.
⇒ Governor’s Role – The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister.
⇒ Parliamentary System – This reflects the Westminster model of parliamentary democracy, where ministers are collectively accountable for all government policies and decisions.★ Thus, Article 164(2) ensures that the Council of Ministers remains accountable to the elected representatives of the people in a state.
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Question 22 of 25
22. Question
The minimum strength of the Council of Ministers in a state as per the Indian Constitution is ____ .
Correct
➤ Minimum Strength of the Council of Ministers in a State – As per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, the total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 and shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Minimum Number – A state must have at least 12 ministers, including the Chief Minister.
⇒ Maximum Limit – The total number of ministers cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. However, in smaller states like Goa, Sikkim, and Mizoram, the upper limit is fixed at 12 to ensure stability in governance.
⇒ Objective of the 91st Amendment – To prevent unnecessary expansion of ministries and reduce the burden on the state exchequer.Incorrect
➤ Minimum Strength of the Council of Ministers in a State – As per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, the total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 and shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly.
➤ Key Points:
⇒ Minimum Number – A state must have at least 12 ministers, including the Chief Minister.
⇒ Maximum Limit – The total number of ministers cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. However, in smaller states like Goa, Sikkim, and Mizoram, the upper limit is fixed at 12 to ensure stability in governance.
⇒ Objective of the 91st Amendment – To prevent unnecessary expansion of ministries and reduce the burden on the state exchequer. -
Question 23 of 25
23. Question
How many members (elected and nominated) were there in the Council of State under the Government of India Act 1919 passed by the Parliament of the United Kingdom to expand participation of Indians in the government of India?
Correct
➤ Council of State under the Government of India Act, 1919 – The Government of India Act, 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced a bicameral legislature in British India for the first time. It consisted of:
⇒ The Council of State (Upper House)
⇒ The Legislative Assembly (Lower House)
➤ Composition of the Council of State:
⇒ Total Members – 60 (both elected and nominated).
⇒ Elected Members – 33 members were elected.
⇒ Nominated Members – 27 members were nominated by the British government.
⇒ Term – Members had a term of 5 years.
⇒ Voting Rights – Only wealthy landowners, princes, and elites were allowed to vote in elections for this body.Incorrect
➤ Council of State under the Government of India Act, 1919 – The Government of India Act, 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced a bicameral legislature in British India for the first time. It consisted of:
⇒ The Council of State (Upper House)
⇒ The Legislative Assembly (Lower House)
➤ Composition of the Council of State:
⇒ Total Members – 60 (both elected and nominated).
⇒ Elected Members – 33 members were elected.
⇒ Nominated Members – 27 members were nominated by the British government.
⇒ Term – Members had a term of 5 years.
⇒ Voting Rights – Only wealthy landowners, princes, and elites were allowed to vote in elections for this body. -
Question 24 of 25
24. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the salaries and allowances of members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of a state?
Correct
➤ Salaries and Allowances of State Legislature Members – The salaries and allowances of the Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) and Members of the Legislative Council (MLCs) are mentioned under Article 195 of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 195:
⇒ The Legislature of a State has the power to determine the salaries and allowances of its members.
⇒ Until the State Legislature makes its own law, the salaries and allowances will be as specified in the Second Schedule of the Constitution.
⇒ This article ensures financial autonomy for state legislators.Incorrect
➤ Salaries and Allowances of State Legislature Members – The salaries and allowances of the Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) and Members of the Legislative Council (MLCs) are mentioned under Article 195 of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 195:
⇒ The Legislature of a State has the power to determine the salaries and allowances of its members.
⇒ Until the State Legislature makes its own law, the salaries and allowances will be as specified in the Second Schedule of the Constitution.
⇒ This article ensures financial autonomy for state legislators. -
Question 25 of 25
25. Question
What Article of the Indian Constitution provides that the State Governor has the authority to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President?
Correct
➤ Governor’s Power to Reserve Bills for President’s Consideration – Article 200 of the Indian Constitution grants the Governor the authority to reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 200:
⇒ When a bill is presented to the Governor after being passed by the State Legislature, the Governor has the following options:-
Give Assent – Approve the bill, making it a law.
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Withhold Assent – Reject the bill.
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Return the Bill – Send it back to the Legislature for reconsideration (except for money bills).
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Reserve for the President’s Consideration – If the Governor believes that the bill:
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Violates the Constitution,
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Affects national interest, or
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Concerns matters where prior approval of the President is required, then it can be sent to the President for final decision.
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Incorrect
➤ Governor’s Power to Reserve Bills for President’s Consideration – Article 200 of the Indian Constitution grants the Governor the authority to reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 200:
⇒ When a bill is presented to the Governor after being passed by the State Legislature, the Governor has the following options:-
Give Assent – Approve the bill, making it a law.
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Withhold Assent – Reject the bill.
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Return the Bill – Send it back to the Legislature for reconsideration (except for money bills).
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Reserve for the President’s Consideration – If the Governor believes that the bill:
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Violates the Constitution,
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Affects national interest, or
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Concerns matters where prior approval of the President is required, then it can be sent to the President for final decision.
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