CGL 2024 Prelims Polity Part 4
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Exam | CGL (Prelims) |
Year | 2024 |
Subject | Polity |
Part | 4 |
Questions | 25 |
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
Who is considered the highest law officer of the state in India?
Correct
➤ The Advocate General is the highest law officer of a state in India.
➤ Article 165 of the Indian Constitution provides for the office of the Advocate General.
➤ The Governor of the state appoints the Advocate General.
➤ The Advocate General’s role is similar to that of the Attorney General of India, but at the state level.
➤ They give legal advice to the state government and represent the state in legal matters.
➤ The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.★ Article 165 → Deals with Advocate General.
★ Appointed by → Governor of the State.
★ Highest law officer at state level → Advocate General.
★ Similar to → Attorney General of India (Article 76) but at the state level.
★ Tenure → Holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.Incorrect
➤ The Advocate General is the highest law officer of a state in India.
➤ Article 165 of the Indian Constitution provides for the office of the Advocate General.
➤ The Governor of the state appoints the Advocate General.
➤ The Advocate General’s role is similar to that of the Attorney General of India, but at the state level.
➤ They give legal advice to the state government and represent the state in legal matters.
➤ The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.★ Article 165 → Deals with Advocate General.
★ Appointed by → Governor of the State.
★ Highest law officer at state level → Advocate General.
★ Similar to → Attorney General of India (Article 76) but at the state level.
★ Tenure → Holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. -
Question 2 of 25
2. Question
Which Committee identified the existence of legal provisions for implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties?
Correct
➤ The Justice Verma Committee identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some Fundamental Duties in India.
➤ This committee was formed in 1999 to suggest ways to make Fundamental Duties more effective.
➤ It pointed out that many laws already exist to enforce certain Fundamental Duties, such as:-
The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 (protects the dignity of the national flag and anthem).
-
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (supports the duty to promote harmony).
-
Various environmental laws (related to the duty to protect the environment).
★ Justice Verma Committee (1999) → Studied implementation of Fundamental Duties.
★ Recommended better enforcement through existing laws.
★ Identified laws like → Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, Environmental laws, etc.
★ Fundamental Duties are in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution.Incorrect
➤ The Justice Verma Committee identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some Fundamental Duties in India.
➤ This committee was formed in 1999 to suggest ways to make Fundamental Duties more effective.
➤ It pointed out that many laws already exist to enforce certain Fundamental Duties, such as:-
The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 (protects the dignity of the national flag and anthem).
-
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (supports the duty to promote harmony).
-
Various environmental laws (related to the duty to protect the environment).
★ Justice Verma Committee (1999) → Studied implementation of Fundamental Duties.
★ Recommended better enforcement through existing laws.
★ Identified laws like → Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, Environmental laws, etc.
★ Fundamental Duties are in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution. -
Question 3 of 25
3. Question
Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that the State must secure a social order to promote the welfare of people?
Correct
➤ Article 38 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to secure a social order that promotes the welfare of the people by ensuring justice—social, economic, and political.
➤ It is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Part IV of the Constitution.
➤ Article 38 has two clauses:-
Article 38(1): The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which justice—social, economic, and political—shall inform all institutions of national life.
-
Article 38(2): The State shall minimize inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities among individuals and groups.
★ Article 38 → Directs the State to ensure welfare and justice for all citizens.
★ Part of DPSP (Part IV) → Non-justiciable but fundamental in governance.
★ Focuses on → Social, economic, and political justice.
★ Article 38(2) → Aims to reduce income and social inequalities.Incorrect
➤ Article 38 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to secure a social order that promotes the welfare of the people by ensuring justice—social, economic, and political.
➤ It is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Part IV of the Constitution.
➤ Article 38 has two clauses:-
Article 38(1): The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which justice—social, economic, and political—shall inform all institutions of national life.
-
Article 38(2): The State shall minimize inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities among individuals and groups.
★ Article 38 → Directs the State to ensure welfare and justice for all citizens.
★ Part of DPSP (Part IV) → Non-justiciable but fundamental in governance.
★ Focuses on → Social, economic, and political justice.
★ Article 38(2) → Aims to reduce income and social inequalities. -
Question 4 of 25
4. Question
Anna Chandy, the first Indian woman to serve as a judge at a high court was oppointed in which High Court?
Correct
➤ Anna Chandy was the first Indian woman to become a judge in a High Court.
➤ She was appointed as a judge in the Kerala High Court in 1959.
➤ Before this, she was also the first woman judge in India, serving as a district judge in 1937.
➤ She was a strong advocate of women’s rights and played a significant role in legal reforms for women.★ Anna Chandy → First woman judge in India.
★ Appointed to Kerala High Court → 1959.
★ First woman district judge → 1937.
★ Known for women’s rights activism and legal reforms.Incorrect
➤ Anna Chandy was the first Indian woman to become a judge in a High Court.
➤ She was appointed as a judge in the Kerala High Court in 1959.
➤ Before this, she was also the first woman judge in India, serving as a district judge in 1937.
➤ She was a strong advocate of women’s rights and played a significant role in legal reforms for women.★ Anna Chandy → First woman judge in India.
★ Appointed to Kerala High Court → 1959.
★ First woman district judge → 1937.
★ Known for women’s rights activism and legal reforms. -
Question 5 of 25
5. Question
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Directive Principles of State Policy as _____ of the Indian constitution.
Correct
➤ Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as “a novel feature of the Constitution”.
➤ The DPSPs are mentioned in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Indian Constitution and aim to establish social and economic democracy.
➤ These principles are not justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts, but they serve as guidelines for the government to frame policies.
➤ The concept of DPSP was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.★ DPSP → “A Novel Feature of the Constitution” (as per Dr. B. R. Ambedkar).
★ Mentioned in → Part IV, Articles 36-51.
★ Borrowed from → Irish Constitution.
★ Not justiciable but guiding principles for governance.Incorrect
➤ Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as “a novel feature of the Constitution”.
➤ The DPSPs are mentioned in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Indian Constitution and aim to establish social and economic democracy.
➤ These principles are not justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts, but they serve as guidelines for the government to frame policies.
➤ The concept of DPSP was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.★ DPSP → “A Novel Feature of the Constitution” (as per Dr. B. R. Ambedkar).
★ Mentioned in → Part IV, Articles 36-51.
★ Borrowed from → Irish Constitution.
★ Not justiciable but guiding principles for governance. -
Question 6 of 25
6. Question
Which writ is issued by a high court or supreme court when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction?
Correct
➤ The writ of Prohibition is issued by the High Court or Supreme Court when a lower court or tribunal exceeds its jurisdiction or acts beyond its legal authority.
➤ It is a preventive writ that halts the lower court from proceeding further in a case.
➤ It can be issued only before the final judgment is passed by the lower court.★ Writ of Prohibition → Issued when a lower court acts beyond its jurisdiction.
★ Issued by → High Court or Supreme Court.
★ Purpose → To stop ongoing proceedings in a lower court.
★ Cannot be issued after the final judgment (In such a case, Certiorari is used).Incorrect
➤ The writ of Prohibition is issued by the High Court or Supreme Court when a lower court or tribunal exceeds its jurisdiction or acts beyond its legal authority.
➤ It is a preventive writ that halts the lower court from proceeding further in a case.
➤ It can be issued only before the final judgment is passed by the lower court.★ Writ of Prohibition → Issued when a lower court acts beyond its jurisdiction.
★ Issued by → High Court or Supreme Court.
★ Purpose → To stop ongoing proceedings in a lower court.
★ Cannot be issued after the final judgment (In such a case, Certiorari is used). -
Question 7 of 25
7. Question
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct
➤ The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not personal or individualistic; instead, they are meant for the welfare of society as a whole.
➤ They guide the State in making policies that promote social justice, economic welfare, political democracy, and the overall well-being of citizens.
➤ They are not enforceable by courts but serve as a moral and political directive for the government.★ DPSPs focus on collective welfare, not just individual interests.
★ They promote social, economic, and political justice rather than personal benefits.⇒ DPSPs → Non-enforceable but essential for governance.
⇒ Aim → To establish social and economic democracy.
⇒ Nature → Positive, as they direct the State to take action for the welfare of people.
⇒ Source → Borrowed from Irish Constitution.Incorrect
➤ The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not personal or individualistic; instead, they are meant for the welfare of society as a whole.
➤ They guide the State in making policies that promote social justice, economic welfare, political democracy, and the overall well-being of citizens.
➤ They are not enforceable by courts but serve as a moral and political directive for the government.★ DPSPs focus on collective welfare, not just individual interests.
★ They promote social, economic, and political justice rather than personal benefits.⇒ DPSPs → Non-enforceable but essential for governance.
⇒ Aim → To establish social and economic democracy.
⇒ Nature → Positive, as they direct the State to take action for the welfare of people.
⇒ Source → Borrowed from Irish Constitution. -
Question 8 of 25
8. Question
____ Directive principles of State Policy were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
Correct
➤ The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) to the Indian Constitution.
The Four Added DPSPs:
⇒ Article 39 (f) → Protection of children and youth from exploitation and moral degradation.
⇒ Article 39A → Promotion of equal justice and free legal aid to the poor.
⇒ Article 43A → Participation of workers in management of industries.
⇒ Article 48A → Protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife.★ 42nd Amendment Act (1976) → Added 4 new DPSPs.
★ Strengthened the socialist and welfare state approach.
★ DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced in court.
★ Inspired by the Irish Constitution.Incorrect
➤ The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) to the Indian Constitution.
The Four Added DPSPs:
⇒ Article 39 (f) → Protection of children and youth from exploitation and moral degradation.
⇒ Article 39A → Promotion of equal justice and free legal aid to the poor.
⇒ Article 43A → Participation of workers in management of industries.
⇒ Article 48A → Protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife.★ 42nd Amendment Act (1976) → Added 4 new DPSPs.
★ Strengthened the socialist and welfare state approach.
★ DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced in court.
★ Inspired by the Irish Constitution. -
Question 9 of 25
9. Question
Who among the following was the shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?
Correct
➤ Shortest-Serving Prime Minister of India → Gulzarilal Nanda
➤ Gulzarilal Nanda served as the shortest-serving Prime Minister of India twice, each time in an interim capacity:
➤ First Term: 27 May 1964 – 9 June 1964 (After Jawaharlal Nehru’s death)
➤ Second Term: 11 January 1966 – 24 January 1966 (After Lal Bahadur Shastri’s death)
➤ His total tenure as PM lasted for 13 days each time.➤ Other short-term Prime Ministers:
⇒ Charan Singh: 28 July 1979 – 14 January 1980 (170 days)
⇒ Chandra Shekhar: 10 November 1990 – 21 June 1991 (223 days)
⇒ Atal Bihari Vajpayee (First Term): 16 May 1996 – 1 June 1996 (13 days, but Nanda was interim PM)★ Since Nanda was an acting PM, if asked for the shortest full-time Prime Minister, the answer would be Atal Bihari Vajpayee (13 days in 1996).
Incorrect
➤ Shortest-Serving Prime Minister of India → Gulzarilal Nanda
➤ Gulzarilal Nanda served as the shortest-serving Prime Minister of India twice, each time in an interim capacity:
➤ First Term: 27 May 1964 – 9 June 1964 (After Jawaharlal Nehru’s death)
➤ Second Term: 11 January 1966 – 24 January 1966 (After Lal Bahadur Shastri’s death)
➤ His total tenure as PM lasted for 13 days each time.➤ Other short-term Prime Ministers:
⇒ Charan Singh: 28 July 1979 – 14 January 1980 (170 days)
⇒ Chandra Shekhar: 10 November 1990 – 21 June 1991 (223 days)
⇒ Atal Bihari Vajpayee (First Term): 16 May 1996 – 1 June 1996 (13 days, but Nanda was interim PM)★ Since Nanda was an acting PM, if asked for the shortest full-time Prime Minister, the answer would be Atal Bihari Vajpayee (13 days in 1996).
-
Question 10 of 25
10. Question
Which article of the Constitution of India lays down that it shall be the duty of the Advocate-General to give advice to the Government of the State upon legal matters?
Correct
➤ Article 165 – Advocate-General for the State: Article 165 of the Indian Constitution states that it shall be the duty of the Advocate-General to give legal advice to the State Government and to perform other legal duties assigned by the Governor.
➤ The Advocate-General is the highest law officer of the state.
➤ He is appointed by the Governor of the respective state.
➤ He must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of a High Court.
➤ His term of office is not fixed by the Constitution, and he holds office at the pleasure of the Governor.
➤ He has the right to speak and participate in state legislative proceedings but cannot vote.★ Article 165 corresponds to the state-level equivalent of the Attorney General of India (Article 76) at the national level.
Incorrect
➤ Article 165 – Advocate-General for the State: Article 165 of the Indian Constitution states that it shall be the duty of the Advocate-General to give legal advice to the State Government and to perform other legal duties assigned by the Governor.
➤ The Advocate-General is the highest law officer of the state.
➤ He is appointed by the Governor of the respective state.
➤ He must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of a High Court.
➤ His term of office is not fixed by the Constitution, and he holds office at the pleasure of the Governor.
➤ He has the right to speak and participate in state legislative proceedings but cannot vote.★ Article 165 corresponds to the state-level equivalent of the Attorney General of India (Article 76) at the national level.
-
Question 11 of 25
11. Question
UPSC is a Constitutional Body to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and the services of the State, respectively, under Article ____.
Correct
➤ Article 320 – Functions of Public Service Commissions: Article 320 of the Indian Constitution lays down the functions of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and State Public Service Commissions (SPSC). It states that these bodies are responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to various services under the Union and the States.
➤ UPSC is a Constitutional Body established under Part XIV of the Indian Constitution to ensure fair recruitment in government services.
➤ It advises the President and Governors on matters related to recruitment rules, promotions, transfers, and disciplinary actions.★ UPSC conducts exams like Civil Services Examination (CSE), Engineering Services Exam (ESE), NDA, CDS, and others.
Incorrect
➤ Article 320 – Functions of Public Service Commissions: Article 320 of the Indian Constitution lays down the functions of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and State Public Service Commissions (SPSC). It states that these bodies are responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to various services under the Union and the States.
➤ UPSC is a Constitutional Body established under Part XIV of the Indian Constitution to ensure fair recruitment in government services.
➤ It advises the President and Governors on matters related to recruitment rules, promotions, transfers, and disciplinary actions.★ UPSC conducts exams like Civil Services Examination (CSE), Engineering Services Exam (ESE), NDA, CDS, and others.
-
Question 12 of 25
12. Question
The number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall NOT be less than _____.
Correct
➤ Article 164(1A) – Number of Ministers in a State: The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 and shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
➤ This provision was added by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 to prevent excessive appointments of ministers and ensure a more efficient government.★ The minimum number of ministers in a state is 12, irrespective of the size of the Legislative Assembly.
Incorrect
➤ Article 164(1A) – Number of Ministers in a State: The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 and shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
➤ This provision was added by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 to prevent excessive appointments of ministers and ensure a more efficient government.★ The minimum number of ministers in a state is 12, irrespective of the size of the Legislative Assembly.
-
Question 13 of 25
13. Question
Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India lays down that ‘The allocation of seats in the Council of States to be filled by representatives of the States and of the Union territories shall be in accordance with the provisions in that behalf contained in the fourth Schedule’?
Correct
➤ Article 80 – Composition of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States): Article 80 of the Indian Constitution states that the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) for representatives of States and Union Territories shall be as per the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution.
➤ Composition of Rajya Sabha:
⇒ A maximum of 250 members.
⇒ 238 members are to be elected by the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.
⇒ 12 members are nominated by the President of India for their expertise in literature, science, art, and social service.★ The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to different States and Union Territories.
Incorrect
➤ Article 80 – Composition of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States): Article 80 of the Indian Constitution states that the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) for representatives of States and Union Territories shall be as per the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution.
➤ Composition of Rajya Sabha:
⇒ A maximum of 250 members.
⇒ 238 members are to be elected by the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.
⇒ 12 members are nominated by the President of India for their expertise in literature, science, art, and social service.★ The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to different States and Union Territories.
-
Question 14 of 25
14. Question
Which of the following States have enacted the Cattle Preservation Act, 2021 in July-August 2021 to regulate slaughter and transport of cattle and proposed an amendment in December 2021 to allow inter-district transportation of cattle for agricultural and animal husbandry except in districts sharing international border?
Correct
➤ Assam Cattle Preservation Act, 2021: Assam enacted the Cattle Preservation Act, 2021 in July-August 2021 to regulate the slaughter, sale, and transport of cattle in the state.
➤ Amendment in December 2021: The Assam government proposed an amendment to allow inter-district transportation of cattle for agricultural and animal husbandry purposes, except in districts sharing an international border.
➤ The law aims to prevent illegal cattle smuggling and protect cattle from slaughter in unauthorized locations.★ Assam shares international borders with Bangladesh and Bhutan, making cattle transportation a sensitive issue.
Incorrect
➤ Assam Cattle Preservation Act, 2021: Assam enacted the Cattle Preservation Act, 2021 in July-August 2021 to regulate the slaughter, sale, and transport of cattle in the state.
➤ Amendment in December 2021: The Assam government proposed an amendment to allow inter-district transportation of cattle for agricultural and animal husbandry purposes, except in districts sharing an international border.
➤ The law aims to prevent illegal cattle smuggling and protect cattle from slaughter in unauthorized locations.★ Assam shares international borders with Bangladesh and Bhutan, making cattle transportation a sensitive issue.
-
Question 15 of 25
15. Question
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good’?
Correct
➤ Article 39(b) – Distribution of Material Resources for the Common Good: This article of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources are distributed in a manner that best serves the common good.
➤ It emphasizes economic justice and equitable distribution of wealth and resources to reduce inequalities.
➤ This provision is aimed at preventing the concentration of wealth in a few hands and ensuring fair resource allocation for all citizens.★ Article 39(b) is part of the Directive Principles under Part IV of the Constitution, which guides the State in policy-making to achieve socio-economic justice.
Incorrect
➤ Article 39(b) – Distribution of Material Resources for the Common Good: This article of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources are distributed in a manner that best serves the common good.
➤ It emphasizes economic justice and equitable distribution of wealth and resources to reduce inequalities.
➤ This provision is aimed at preventing the concentration of wealth in a few hands and ensuring fair resource allocation for all citizens.★ Article 39(b) is part of the Directive Principles under Part IV of the Constitution, which guides the State in policy-making to achieve socio-economic justice.
-
Question 16 of 25
16. Question
Ranjana Prakash Desai who became the first woman chairperson of the Press Council of India originally worked in which of the following organs of the government?
Correct
➤ Ranjana Prakash Desai – First Woman Chairperson of the Press Council of India: She originally worked in the Judiciary before becoming the chairperson of the Press Council of India.
➤ She is a former judge of the Supreme Court of India and has also served as the Chairperson of the Delimitation Commission of India.
➤ Her tenure in the Judiciary included landmark judgments and significant contributions to legal reforms.★ She became the first woman to head the Press Council of India, which regulates the print media in India, ensuring freedom of the press and ethical journalism.
Incorrect
➤ Ranjana Prakash Desai – First Woman Chairperson of the Press Council of India: She originally worked in the Judiciary before becoming the chairperson of the Press Council of India.
➤ She is a former judge of the Supreme Court of India and has also served as the Chairperson of the Delimitation Commission of India.
➤ Her tenure in the Judiciary included landmark judgments and significant contributions to legal reforms.★ She became the first woman to head the Press Council of India, which regulates the print media in India, ensuring freedom of the press and ethical journalism.
-
Question 17 of 25
17. Question
Which of the following Constitution Amendment Bills is related to the provision of modifying the list of Scheduled Caste in Tamil Nadu?
Correct
➤ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021 is related to modifying the list of Scheduled Castes in Tamil Nadu.
➤ This bill was introduced to include certain communities in the Scheduled Caste list of Tamil Nadu to ensure they receive constitutional benefits.
➤ The amendment was made to the Scheduled Castes Order, 1950, which specifies the SC communities in various states and union territories.★ Such amendments are important for providing social justice and reservation benefits to newly recognized communities under the Scheduled Caste category.
Incorrect
➤ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021 is related to modifying the list of Scheduled Castes in Tamil Nadu.
➤ This bill was introduced to include certain communities in the Scheduled Caste list of Tamil Nadu to ensure they receive constitutional benefits.
➤ The amendment was made to the Scheduled Castes Order, 1950, which specifies the SC communities in various states and union territories.★ Such amendments are important for providing social justice and reservation benefits to newly recognized communities under the Scheduled Caste category.
-
Question 18 of 25
18. Question
For which of the following states was the Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Second Amendment) Bill, 2022, introduced in the Parliament?
Correct
➤ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Second Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Parliament to amend the list of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Uttar Pradesh.
➤ The Bill aimed to modify the SC/ST list of Uttar Pradesh by including or excluding certain communities for better socio-economic development.
➤ Such amendments are made under Article 341 and Article 342 of the Indian Constitution, which empower Parliament to modify the SC/ST lists for states and union territories.★ Introduced for Uttar Pradesh in 2022.
★ Amends SC/ST list under Articles 341 & 342.
★ Important for constitutional and social justice topics in SSC, Railways, and other exams.Incorrect
➤ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Second Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Parliament to amend the list of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Uttar Pradesh.
➤ The Bill aimed to modify the SC/ST list of Uttar Pradesh by including or excluding certain communities for better socio-economic development.
➤ Such amendments are made under Article 341 and Article 342 of the Indian Constitution, which empower Parliament to modify the SC/ST lists for states and union territories.★ Introduced for Uttar Pradesh in 2022.
★ Amends SC/ST list under Articles 341 & 342.
★ Important for constitutional and social justice topics in SSC, Railways, and other exams. -
Question 19 of 25
19. Question
Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the conduct of business of the Government of a state?
Correct
➤ Article 166 – Conduct of Business of the Government of a State: This article specifies how the executive actions of a state government are carried out.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 166:
⇒ All executive actions of a state government must be taken in the name of the Governor.
⇒ Rules can be made by the Governor to allocate and manage government business.
⇒ Orders and instruments issued by the government must be authenticated as per prescribed rules.★ Article 166 defines the official procedures for conducting state government business.
★ Important for state governance and constitutional structure in SSC, Railways, and other competitive exams.Incorrect
➤ Article 166 – Conduct of Business of the Government of a State: This article specifies how the executive actions of a state government are carried out.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 166:
⇒ All executive actions of a state government must be taken in the name of the Governor.
⇒ Rules can be made by the Governor to allocate and manage government business.
⇒ Orders and instruments issued by the government must be authenticated as per prescribed rules.★ Article 166 defines the official procedures for conducting state government business.
★ Important for state governance and constitutional structure in SSC, Railways, and other competitive exams. -
Question 20 of 25
20. Question
In which of the following years was the Right of Persons with Disabilities Act passed?
Correct
➤ Right of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016: This Act was passed to ensure equal rights, protection, and empowerment of persons with disabilities in India.
➤ Key Provisions of the Act:
⇒ Replaced the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
⇒ Increased the number of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21, including autism, cerebral palsy, and learning disabilities.
⇒ Provided reservations in government jobs (4%) and educational institutions (5%) for persons with disabilities.
⇒ Strengthened penalties for discrimination and ensured accessibility in public buildings, transport, and education.★ The Right of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, aligns with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD).
★ Important for social justice and welfare policies, frequently asked in SSC, Railways, and other competitive exams.Incorrect
➤ Right of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016: This Act was passed to ensure equal rights, protection, and empowerment of persons with disabilities in India.
➤ Key Provisions of the Act:
⇒ Replaced the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
⇒ Increased the number of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21, including autism, cerebral palsy, and learning disabilities.
⇒ Provided reservations in government jobs (4%) and educational institutions (5%) for persons with disabilities.
⇒ Strengthened penalties for discrimination and ensured accessibility in public buildings, transport, and education.★ The Right of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, aligns with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD).
★ Important for social justice and welfare policies, frequently asked in SSC, Railways, and other competitive exams. -
Question 21 of 25
21. Question
Which committee recommended Constitutional recognition for the local government bodies in 1989?
Correct
➤ P.K. Thungon Committee (1989): This committee recommended constitutional recognition for local government bodies (Panchayati Raj and Municipalities).
➤ Key Recommendations:
⇒ Suggested constitutional status for Panchayati Raj institutions.
⇒ Proposed a three-tier system at village, block, and district levels.
⇒ Recommended regular elections to local bodies.
⇒ Suggested financial devolution and State Finance Commissions to allocate funds.★ These recommendations led to the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments (1992), which gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj and Municipalities.
★ Important for SSC, Railways, and other competitive exams related to Indian polity and governance.Incorrect
➤ P.K. Thungon Committee (1989): This committee recommended constitutional recognition for local government bodies (Panchayati Raj and Municipalities).
➤ Key Recommendations:
⇒ Suggested constitutional status for Panchayati Raj institutions.
⇒ Proposed a three-tier system at village, block, and district levels.
⇒ Recommended regular elections to local bodies.
⇒ Suggested financial devolution and State Finance Commissions to allocate funds.★ These recommendations led to the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments (1992), which gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj and Municipalities.
★ Important for SSC, Railways, and other competitive exams related to Indian polity and governance. -
Question 22 of 25
22. Question
The Parliament passed the Marine Aids to Navigation Bill, 2021 to repeal and replace which of the following Acts?
Correct
➤ Marine Aids to Navigation Bill, 2021: This bill was passed to modernize and regulate marine navigation and replace outdated laws related to lighthouses.
➤ Repealed Act: The Lighthouse Act, 1927, which was over 90 years old and focused only on lighthouses without covering modern navigation aids.
➤ Key Features of the Bill:
⇒ Expands the scope beyond lighthouses to include modern marine navigation systems.
⇒ Establishes a Marine Aids to Navigation Authority for development and maintenance.
⇒ Encourages public-private participation in the sector.
⇒ Recognizes vessel traffic services and electronic navigation for better safety.★ This is important for SSC, Railways, and other exams covering current affairs and legislative reforms.
Incorrect
➤ Marine Aids to Navigation Bill, 2021: This bill was passed to modernize and regulate marine navigation and replace outdated laws related to lighthouses.
➤ Repealed Act: The Lighthouse Act, 1927, which was over 90 years old and focused only on lighthouses without covering modern navigation aids.
➤ Key Features of the Bill:
⇒ Expands the scope beyond lighthouses to include modern marine navigation systems.
⇒ Establishes a Marine Aids to Navigation Authority for development and maintenance.
⇒ Encourages public-private participation in the sector.
⇒ Recognizes vessel traffic services and electronic navigation for better safety.★ This is important for SSC, Railways, and other exams covering current affairs and legislative reforms.
-
Question 23 of 25
23. Question
As per article 158, the Governor shall NOT be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State specified in ____ Schedule.
Correct
➤ Article 158 – Conditions of Governor’s Office: This article states that the Governor shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or the State Legislature.
➤ Schedule Mentioned: The Governor shall not be a member of a House of the Legislature of any State specified in the First Schedule of the Constitution.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 158:
⇒ The Governor cannot hold any other office of profit.
⇒ He is entitled to official residence and emoluments.
⇒ His emoluments cannot be diminished during his term.★ Article 158 ensures the Governor remains politically neutral and independent, which is crucial for maintaining the federal structure of India.
Incorrect
➤ Article 158 – Conditions of Governor’s Office: This article states that the Governor shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or the State Legislature.
➤ Schedule Mentioned: The Governor shall not be a member of a House of the Legislature of any State specified in the First Schedule of the Constitution.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 158:
⇒ The Governor cannot hold any other office of profit.
⇒ He is entitled to official residence and emoluments.
⇒ His emoluments cannot be diminished during his term.★ Article 158 ensures the Governor remains politically neutral and independent, which is crucial for maintaining the federal structure of India.
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Question 24 of 25
24. Question
Who among the following, while praising the amending feature of the Indian Constitution said that ‘This variety in the amending process is wise but is rarely found’?
Correct
➤ K.C. Wheare on the Amending Feature of the Indian Constitution: K.C. Wheare, a British constitutional expert, praised the flexibility and rigidity of India’s amending process and stated, “This variety in the amending process is wise but is rarely found.”
➤ Why is the Indian Amendment Process Unique?
⇒ The Indian Constitution provides multiple methods of amendment based on the importance of provisions.
⇒ It is partly rigid and partly flexible, meaning some provisions require a simple majority, while others need a special majority or ratification by states.
⇒ This ensures both stability and adaptability in governance.★ The amendment process in India is detailed in Article 368, which classifies amendments into three types:
⇒ Simple Majority Amendments
⇒ Special Majority Amendments
⇒ Special Majority + State Ratification AmendmentsIncorrect
➤ K.C. Wheare on the Amending Feature of the Indian Constitution: K.C. Wheare, a British constitutional expert, praised the flexibility and rigidity of India’s amending process and stated, “This variety in the amending process is wise but is rarely found.”
➤ Why is the Indian Amendment Process Unique?
⇒ The Indian Constitution provides multiple methods of amendment based on the importance of provisions.
⇒ It is partly rigid and partly flexible, meaning some provisions require a simple majority, while others need a special majority or ratification by states.
⇒ This ensures both stability and adaptability in governance.★ The amendment process in India is detailed in Article 368, which classifies amendments into three types:
⇒ Simple Majority Amendments
⇒ Special Majority Amendments
⇒ Special Majority + State Ratification Amendments -
Question 25 of 25
25. Question
Which Article of the Constitution explains that the executive power of every state shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a state as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose?
Correct
➤ Article 257 – Control of the Union over States in Certain Cases: This article states that the executive power of every state must not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 257:
⇒ The Union Government can issue directions to a State if necessary.
⇒ The State Government must ensure that its executive actions do not conflict with the Union’s authority.
⇒ If a State does not comply, the President can take necessary steps, including invoking Article 356 (President’s Rule).★ Article 257 ensures coordination between the Centre and States and prevents conflicts in administrative powers.
★ It is a crucial provision in maintaining India’s federal structure with a strong unitary bias.Incorrect
➤ Article 257 – Control of the Union over States in Certain Cases: This article states that the executive power of every state must not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union.
➤ Key Provisions of Article 257:
⇒ The Union Government can issue directions to a State if necessary.
⇒ The State Government must ensure that its executive actions do not conflict with the Union’s authority.
⇒ If a State does not comply, the President can take necessary steps, including invoking Article 356 (President’s Rule).★ Article 257 ensures coordination between the Centre and States and prevents conflicts in administrative powers.
★ It is a crucial provision in maintaining India’s federal structure with a strong unitary bias.