CHSL 2024 Prelims Polity Part 4
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Exam | CHSL (Prelims) |
Year | 2024 |
Subject | Polity |
Part | 4 |
Questions | 26 |
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Question 1 of 26
1. Question
On 2 March 2023, the Supreme Court delivered an order on appointments to the Election Commission According to this order, appointments will be done under the recommendation of a committee having which of the following members?
Correct
➤ On March 2, 2023, the Supreme Court of India ruled that the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) shall be made by the President based on the advice of a committee comprising:
-
Prime Minister
-
Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
-
Chief Justice of India (CJI)
➤ This decision aimed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission of India (ECI).
➤ However, in 2023, Parliament enacted the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, which altered the composition of the selection committee. Under this Act, the committee includes:-
Prime Minister
-
Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
-
A Union Cabinet Minister, nominated by the Prime Minister
➤ This legislative change replaced the Chief Justice of India with a Cabinet Minister in the selection committee. It’s important to note that this composition was later modified by the 2023 Act enacted by Parliament.
Incorrect
➤ On March 2, 2023, the Supreme Court of India ruled that the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) shall be made by the President based on the advice of a committee comprising:
-
Prime Minister
-
Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
-
Chief Justice of India (CJI)
➤ This decision aimed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission of India (ECI).
➤ However, in 2023, Parliament enacted the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, which altered the composition of the selection committee. Under this Act, the committee includes:-
Prime Minister
-
Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
-
A Union Cabinet Minister, nominated by the Prime Minister
➤ This legislative change replaced the Chief Justice of India with a Cabinet Minister in the selection committee. It’s important to note that this composition was later modified by the 2023 Act enacted by Parliament.
-
Question 2 of 26
2. Question
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution states that ‘It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.’?
Correct
➤ Article 51A(e) of the Constitution of India lays down the Fundamental Duty to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all Indians.
➤ It emphasizes transcending religious, linguistic, regional, or sectional diversities.
➤ It also includes the duty to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
➤ This is one of the 11 Fundamental Duties listed under Part IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution.★ Article 51A(e) promotes social harmony and gender equality.
★ Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
★ These duties are not enforceable by law, but they are moral obligations of every citizen.Incorrect
➤ Article 51A(e) of the Constitution of India lays down the Fundamental Duty to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all Indians.
➤ It emphasizes transcending religious, linguistic, regional, or sectional diversities.
➤ It also includes the duty to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
➤ This is one of the 11 Fundamental Duties listed under Part IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution.★ Article 51A(e) promotes social harmony and gender equality.
★ Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
★ These duties are not enforceable by law, but they are moral obligations of every citizen. -
Question 3 of 26
3. Question
After independence, the Census Act was enacted in India in the year _____.
Correct
➤ The Census Act in India was enacted in the year 1948 after independence.
➤ This Act provides the legal framework for conducting population censuses in India.
➤ It empowers the Central Government to conduct a census whenever necessary and appoint census officers.
➤ The first Census of independent India was conducted in 1951 under this Act.★ Census Act, 1948 is the legal basis for population enumeration in India.
★ First post-independence Census: conducted in 1951.
★ Census is conducted every 10 years by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs.Incorrect
➤ The Census Act in India was enacted in the year 1948 after independence.
➤ This Act provides the legal framework for conducting population censuses in India.
➤ It empowers the Central Government to conduct a census whenever necessary and appoint census officers.
➤ The first Census of independent India was conducted in 1951 under this Act.★ Census Act, 1948 is the legal basis for population enumeration in India.
★ First post-independence Census: conducted in 1951.
★ Census is conducted every 10 years by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs. -
Question 4 of 26
4. Question
On 11 August 2021, the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Amendment Bill, 2021 was passed by the Parliament and it amended the ______.
Correct
➤ On 11 August 2021, the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Amendment Bill, 2021 was passed by the Parliament.
➤ This bill amended the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972.
➤ The amendment aimed to enable the privatisation of public sector general insurance companies by removing the requirement of the Central Government holding not less than 51% of equity capital.
➤ It also allowed the transfer of control and other rights to private entities.★ The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 was originally enacted to nationalise general insurance business.
★ The 2021 Amendment facilitates privatisation of public sector general insurers.
★ The Act covers companies like New India Assurance, National Insurance, Oriental Insurance, and United India Insurance.Incorrect
➤ On 11 August 2021, the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Amendment Bill, 2021 was passed by the Parliament.
➤ This bill amended the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972.
➤ The amendment aimed to enable the privatisation of public sector general insurance companies by removing the requirement of the Central Government holding not less than 51% of equity capital.
➤ It also allowed the transfer of control and other rights to private entities.★ The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 was originally enacted to nationalise general insurance business.
★ The 2021 Amendment facilitates privatisation of public sector general insurers.
★ The Act covers companies like New India Assurance, National Insurance, Oriental Insurance, and United India Insurance. -
Question 5 of 26
5. Question
Which Clause of Article 20 incorporates the doctrine of double jeopardy?
Correct
➤ Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection in respect of conviction for offences.
➤ Clause (2) of Article 20 states: “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.”
➤ This incorporates the doctrine of double jeopardy, which means a person cannot be tried and punished twice for the same offence.
➤ This provision acts as a safeguard against repeated prosecutions and protects the individual from legal harassment.★ Clause (2) of Article 20 deals with the doctrine of double jeopardy.
★ Article 20 provides protection against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
★ These protections are available to both citizens and foreigners.Incorrect
➤ Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection in respect of conviction for offences.
➤ Clause (2) of Article 20 states: “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.”
➤ This incorporates the doctrine of double jeopardy, which means a person cannot be tried and punished twice for the same offence.
➤ This provision acts as a safeguard against repeated prosecutions and protects the individual from legal harassment.★ Clause (2) of Article 20 deals with the doctrine of double jeopardy.
★ Article 20 provides protection against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
★ These protections are available to both citizens and foreigners. -
Question 6 of 26
6. Question
Which Article of the Constitution mentions about establishing and maintaining institutions for religious and charitable purposes?
Correct
➤ Article 26 of the Indian Constitution grants every religious denomination the freedom to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
➤ It specifically provides the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
➤ It also includes rights like owning and acquiring movable and immovable property, and administering such property according to law.
➤ This Article is subject to public order, morality, and health.★ Article 26 ensures religious freedom and autonomy to religious denominations.
★ It is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution.
★ The right under Article 26 is available to religious denominations or any section thereof, not to individuals.Incorrect
➤ Article 26 of the Indian Constitution grants every religious denomination the freedom to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
➤ It specifically provides the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
➤ It also includes rights like owning and acquiring movable and immovable property, and administering such property according to law.
➤ This Article is subject to public order, morality, and health.★ Article 26 ensures religious freedom and autonomy to religious denominations.
★ It is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution.
★ The right under Article 26 is available to religious denominations or any section thereof, not to individuals. -
Question 7 of 26
7. Question
Which committee is related to fundamental duties?
Correct
➤ The Verma Committee, officially known as the Justice Verma Committee (1999), was constituted to review the working of the Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution.
➤ The committee emphasized the need to enforce Fundamental Duties and recommended measures to create awareness and ensure compliance.
➤ It also suggested the inclusion of a legal framework for the effective implementation of these duties.★ Verma Committee (1999) is directly linked to Fundamental Duties.
★ The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 also added a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(k)).
★ Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution.Incorrect
➤ The Verma Committee, officially known as the Justice Verma Committee (1999), was constituted to review the working of the Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution.
➤ The committee emphasized the need to enforce Fundamental Duties and recommended measures to create awareness and ensure compliance.
➤ It also suggested the inclusion of a legal framework for the effective implementation of these duties.★ Verma Committee (1999) is directly linked to Fundamental Duties.
★ The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 also added a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(k)).
★ Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution. -
Question 8 of 26
8. Question
Which of the following Articles was amended in the Constitution (Fifth Amendment Act), 1955?
Correct
➤ The Fifth Amendment Act, 1955 amended Article 3 of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Article 3 deals with the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
➤ The amendment allowed flexibility in the time limit given to State Legislatures to express their views on the proposed changes by Parliament.★ Article 3 was amended by the Fifth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1955.
★ It relates to formation and reorganization of states.
★ This amendment gave Parliament more leeway in managing state boundary changes.Incorrect
➤ The Fifth Amendment Act, 1955 amended Article 3 of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Article 3 deals with the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
➤ The amendment allowed flexibility in the time limit given to State Legislatures to express their views on the proposed changes by Parliament.★ Article 3 was amended by the Fifth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1955.
★ It relates to formation and reorganization of states.
★ This amendment gave Parliament more leeway in managing state boundary changes. -
Question 9 of 26
9. Question
In which year was the National Human Rights Commission established in India?
Correct
➤ The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
➤ It is a statutory body responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.
➤ The commission inquires into human rights violations and negligence by public servants.★ NHRC was established on 12 October 1993.
★ It works under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
★ It ensures the protection of fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution.Incorrect
➤ The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
➤ It is a statutory body responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.
➤ The commission inquires into human rights violations and negligence by public servants.★ NHRC was established on 12 October 1993.
★ It works under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
★ It ensures the protection of fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution. -
Question 10 of 26
10. Question
From which of the following Constitutions has the India Constitution adopted the system of ‘First Past the Post’?
Correct
➤ The First Past the Post (FPTP) system is a type of electoral system where the candidate with the most votes wins, regardless of whether they secure a majority.
➤ This voting system has been adopted in India for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
➤ India borrowed this system from the British Constitution, where it is used for the House of Commons elections.★ The FPTP system in India is a legacy of British colonial rule.
★ It is simple and quick, but criticized for not always reflecting the majority opinion.Incorrect
➤ The First Past the Post (FPTP) system is a type of electoral system where the candidate with the most votes wins, regardless of whether they secure a majority.
➤ This voting system has been adopted in India for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
➤ India borrowed this system from the British Constitution, where it is used for the House of Commons elections.★ The FPTP system in India is a legacy of British colonial rule.
★ It is simple and quick, but criticized for not always reflecting the majority opinion. -
Question 11 of 26
11. Question
Lal Thanhawla holds the record for the longest-serving Chief Minister of ____, occupying the position for five terms.
Correct
➤ Lal Thanhawla is a senior leader of the Indian National Congress from the state of Mizoram.
➤ He served as the Chief Minister of Mizoram for five terms, making him the longest-serving CM of the state.
➤ His terms as CM were from 1984 to 1986, 1989 to 1998, and then from 2008 to 2018.★ Lal Thanhawla was the longest-serving CM of Mizoram with five terms.
★ He played a significant role in the peace process and political stability in Mizoram.Incorrect
➤ Lal Thanhawla is a senior leader of the Indian National Congress from the state of Mizoram.
➤ He served as the Chief Minister of Mizoram for five terms, making him the longest-serving CM of the state.
➤ His terms as CM were from 1984 to 1986, 1989 to 1998, and then from 2008 to 2018.★ Lal Thanhawla was the longest-serving CM of Mizoram with five terms.
★ He played a significant role in the peace process and political stability in Mizoram. -
Question 12 of 26
12. Question
The parliamentary standing committees have a tenure of ____ years.
Correct
➤ Parliamentary Standing Committees are permanent committees constituted every year by the Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
➤ These committees are reconstituted annually, hence their tenure is 1 year.
➤ They play a vital role in examining bills, budgets, and policies more thoroughly than is possible in full Parliament sittings.★ Standing Committees are reconstituted every year, hence have a 1-year tenure.
★ They are crucial for detailed scrutiny of legislation and government functioning.Incorrect
➤ Parliamentary Standing Committees are permanent committees constituted every year by the Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
➤ These committees are reconstituted annually, hence their tenure is 1 year.
➤ They play a vital role in examining bills, budgets, and policies more thoroughly than is possible in full Parliament sittings.★ Standing Committees are reconstituted every year, hence have a 1-year tenure.
★ They are crucial for detailed scrutiny of legislation and government functioning. -
Question 13 of 26
13. Question
In which year did the Indian Constitution declare Hindi in Devanagari script to be the official language of the Union?
Correct
➤ Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution states that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the official language of the Union.
➤ This provision came into effect on 26th January 1950, but the Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949, hence the declaration was made in 1949.
➤ English was allowed to continue for official purposes for 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution.★ The Constitution was adopted in 1949, and hence the official language was declared in 1949.
Incorrect
➤ Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution states that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the official language of the Union.
➤ This provision came into effect on 26th January 1950, but the Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949, hence the declaration was made in 1949.
➤ English was allowed to continue for official purposes for 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution.★ The Constitution was adopted in 1949, and hence the official language was declared in 1949.
-
Question 14 of 26
14. Question
The Supreme Court, in May 2023, observed that it can give divorce on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage by exercising its discretionary power under ____.
Correct
➤ In May 2023, the Supreme Court of India ruled that it can grant divorce on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage even if such ground is not mentioned under the Hindu Marriage Act or any personal law.
➤ This power is exercised under Article 142 of the Constitution, which empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
➤ The court emphasized that it can waive the mandatory waiting period and dissolve marriages if it’s beyond repair, under its extraordinary constitutional power.★ Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to ensure “complete justice” in any case.
★ In May 2023, the Court used Article 142 to grant divorce on irretrievable breakdown of marriage.
★ This is a discretionary and extraordinary power of the Supreme Court.Incorrect
➤ In May 2023, the Supreme Court of India ruled that it can grant divorce on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage even if such ground is not mentioned under the Hindu Marriage Act or any personal law.
➤ This power is exercised under Article 142 of the Constitution, which empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
➤ The court emphasized that it can waive the mandatory waiting period and dissolve marriages if it’s beyond repair, under its extraordinary constitutional power.★ Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to ensure “complete justice” in any case.
★ In May 2023, the Court used Article 142 to grant divorce on irretrievable breakdown of marriage.
★ This is a discretionary and extraordinary power of the Supreme Court. -
Question 15 of 26
15. Question
In which of the following years was the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 amended?
Correct
➤ The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 was amended in 2021 to address implementation gaps and improve child protection mechanisms.
➤ The Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act, 2021 was passed to give District Magistrates the power to issue adoption orders and monitor child care institutions.
➤ The amendment also reclassified certain offences and strengthened the procedure for serious offences against children.★ Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 was amended in 2021.
★ Gave more powers to District Magistrates regarding adoption and monitoring.
★ Strengthened child protection and institutional care provisions.Incorrect
➤ The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 was amended in 2021 to address implementation gaps and improve child protection mechanisms.
➤ The Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act, 2021 was passed to give District Magistrates the power to issue adoption orders and monitor child care institutions.
➤ The amendment also reclassified certain offences and strengthened the procedure for serious offences against children.★ Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 was amended in 2021.
★ Gave more powers to District Magistrates regarding adoption and monitoring.
★ Strengthened child protection and institutional care provisions. -
Question 16 of 26
16. Question
Under the discretionary power of which Article of the Indian Constitution did the SC of India recognise sex work as a profession?
Correct
➤ The Supreme Court of India, in May 2022, recognized sex work as a profession under its discretionary power provided by Article 142 of the Constitution.
➤ Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary to do “complete justice” in any matter pending before it.
➤ The Court issued guidelines stating that sex workers are entitled to dignity and equal protection under law, just like any other citizen.★ Article 142 allows the SC to ensure complete justice in cases.
★ SC recognized sex work as a profession in 2022 under Article 142.
★ Ensures constitutional protection and dignity for sex workers.Incorrect
➤ The Supreme Court of India, in May 2022, recognized sex work as a profession under its discretionary power provided by Article 142 of the Constitution.
➤ Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary to do “complete justice” in any matter pending before it.
➤ The Court issued guidelines stating that sex workers are entitled to dignity and equal protection under law, just like any other citizen.★ Article 142 allows the SC to ensure complete justice in cases.
★ SC recognized sex work as a profession in 2022 under Article 142.
★ Ensures constitutional protection and dignity for sex workers. -
Question 17 of 26
17. Question
The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022, was enacted to give effect to which of the following?
Correct
➤ The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022 was enacted by India to deal with the growing threat of piracy on the high seas and to ensure the security of maritime trade routes.
➤ It gives effect to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), specifically to provisions related to the repression of piracy.
➤ The Act defines piracy, lays out punishment including life imprisonment and even the death penalty, and provides jurisdiction to Indian courts to try piracy offences.★ The Act enforces provisions of the UNCLOS related to piracy on high seas.
★ It gives India legal power to act against pirates even beyond its maritime boundary.Incorrect
➤ The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022 was enacted by India to deal with the growing threat of piracy on the high seas and to ensure the security of maritime trade routes.
➤ It gives effect to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), specifically to provisions related to the repression of piracy.
➤ The Act defines piracy, lays out punishment including life imprisonment and even the death penalty, and provides jurisdiction to Indian courts to try piracy offences.★ The Act enforces provisions of the UNCLOS related to piracy on high seas.
★ It gives India legal power to act against pirates even beyond its maritime boundary. -
Question 18 of 26
18. Question
Which of the following statement/(s) is /are true with respect to Supreme Court Observation in A.G. Perarivalan vs The State Of Tamil Nadu State?
1. It highlighted that the Governor’s powers are qualified by the constitutional mandate, chiefly requiring them to act in aid and advice of the council of ministers
2. The bench headed by justice L Nageswara Rao ordered the freedom of one of the convicts in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case.
3. The bench was of the opinion that there are three sources of power-Governor, Council of Ministers and the Constitution.Correct
➤ In A.G. Perarivalan vs The State of Tamil Nadu, the Supreme Court made important observations on the powers of the Governor under Article 161 (pardoning powers) and the role of the Council of Ministers.
➤ The Court clearly stated that Governors are bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 161, and cannot act independently in such matters.
➤ The bench led by Justice L. Nageswara Rao exercised powers under Article 142 to order the release of A.G. Perarivalan, who was convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case, highlighting delay and other factors.
➤ The Court emphasized that the Governor must act within the constitutional framework and on the advice of the Council of Ministers, but did not refer to “three sources of power” in that manner.★ Supreme Court reaffirmed that Governor is not an independent authority in such remission matters.
★ The Court used Article 142 to ensure complete justice and order the convict’s release.Incorrect
➤ In A.G. Perarivalan vs The State of Tamil Nadu, the Supreme Court made important observations on the powers of the Governor under Article 161 (pardoning powers) and the role of the Council of Ministers.
➤ The Court clearly stated that Governors are bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 161, and cannot act independently in such matters.
➤ The bench led by Justice L. Nageswara Rao exercised powers under Article 142 to order the release of A.G. Perarivalan, who was convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case, highlighting delay and other factors.
➤ The Court emphasized that the Governor must act within the constitutional framework and on the advice of the Council of Ministers, but did not refer to “three sources of power” in that manner.★ Supreme Court reaffirmed that Governor is not an independent authority in such remission matters.
★ The Court used Article 142 to ensure complete justice and order the convict’s release. -
Question 19 of 26
19. Question
In which judgement did the Supreme Court extend the scope of Article 21 and observed that ‘the Right to education flows directly from the Right to life’?
Correct
➤ The Supreme Court in Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka (1992) extended the scope of Article 21 (Right to Life) by stating that Right to Education is an integral part of the right to life.
➤ The case dealt with capitation fees charged by private medical colleges, which were discriminatory and denied education to economically weaker sections.
➤ The Court held that the Right to Education flows directly from the Right to Life, and the state has a duty to provide education to its citizens.★ This judgment was a milestone in expanding Article 21 to include socio-economic rights like education.
★ It laid the groundwork for the later constitutional amendment (86th Amendment Act, 2002) that inserted Article 21A, making Right to Education a Fundamental Right.Incorrect
➤ The Supreme Court in Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka (1992) extended the scope of Article 21 (Right to Life) by stating that Right to Education is an integral part of the right to life.
➤ The case dealt with capitation fees charged by private medical colleges, which were discriminatory and denied education to economically weaker sections.
➤ The Court held that the Right to Education flows directly from the Right to Life, and the state has a duty to provide education to its citizens.★ This judgment was a milestone in expanding Article 21 to include socio-economic rights like education.
★ It laid the groundwork for the later constitutional amendment (86th Amendment Act, 2002) that inserted Article 21A, making Right to Education a Fundamental Right. -
Question 20 of 26
20. Question
The Press and Periodicals Registration Bill, 2023 replaced which act with a simplified law that decriminalizes various provisions and brings digital media under its ambit?
Correct
The Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023 was enacted to replace the Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867. This new legislation aims to modernize and simplify the registration process for periodicals, decriminalize various provisions, and bring digital media under its purview.
Incorrect
The Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023 was enacted to replace the Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867. This new legislation aims to modernize and simplify the registration process for periodicals, decriminalize various provisions, and bring digital media under its purview.
-
Question 21 of 26
21. Question
Which Section of the Representation of People’s Act (RPA:), 1951 deprives the prisoners of their right to vote?
Correct
➤ Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or otherwise.”
➤ This section bars prisoners, including undertrials, from exercising their right to vote, except when they are in preventive detention.
➤ The Supreme Court has upheld the validity of this section, stating that voting is a statutory right, not a fundamental one.★ Section 62(5), RPA 1951 – Bars voting rights for prisoners (except preventive detention cases).
★ Voting is a statutory right – Can be reasonably restricted by law.
★ Undertrials also lose voting rights while in prison.Incorrect
➤ Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 states that “no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or otherwise.”
➤ This section bars prisoners, including undertrials, from exercising their right to vote, except when they are in preventive detention.
➤ The Supreme Court has upheld the validity of this section, stating that voting is a statutory right, not a fundamental one.★ Section 62(5), RPA 1951 – Bars voting rights for prisoners (except preventive detention cases).
★ Voting is a statutory right – Can be reasonably restricted by law.
★ Undertrials also lose voting rights while in prison. -
Question 22 of 26
22. Question
The Press and Registration of Books (PRB:) Act was enacted in which year?
Correct
➤ The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867 was enacted during the British era to regulate the printing presses and newspapers in India.
➤ The Act made it mandatory for every book or newspaper to print the name of the printer and publisher, and to register with the District Magistrate.
➤ It was one of the earliest laws regulating the press in India and continued to remain in effect for over 150 years until it was replaced by the Press and Periodicals Registration Bill, 2023.★ PRB Act Enacted – Year 1867, under British rule.
★ Purpose – Regulate printing presses, newspapers, and book publication.
★ Replaced by – Press and Periodicals Registration Bill, 2023.Incorrect
➤ The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867 was enacted during the British era to regulate the printing presses and newspapers in India.
➤ The Act made it mandatory for every book or newspaper to print the name of the printer and publisher, and to register with the District Magistrate.
➤ It was one of the earliest laws regulating the press in India and continued to remain in effect for over 150 years until it was replaced by the Press and Periodicals Registration Bill, 2023.★ PRB Act Enacted – Year 1867, under British rule.
★ Purpose – Regulate printing presses, newspapers, and book publication.
★ Replaced by – Press and Periodicals Registration Bill, 2023. -
Question 23 of 26
23. Question
Which of the following Articles was amended by The Constitution Fiftieth Amendment Act, 1984?
Correct
➤ The 50th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1984 amended Article 33 of the Constitution of India.
➤ Article 33 empowers the Parliament to modify the application of Fundamental Rights to members of:-
Armed Forces
-
Forces charged with maintenance of public order
-
Intelligence or counter-intelligence bureaus
-
Telecommunication systems set up for any of these forces
➤ The amendment extended this provision to also include persons employed in any bureau or organization established by the state for intelligence or counterintelligence purposes.
★ 50th Amendment Act Year – 1984
★ Amended Article – Article 33
★ Purpose – To protect national security by restricting Fundamental Rights for personnel in sensitive roles like intelligence.
★ Applies to – Armed forces, police, intelligence agencies, and telecommunication setups used by them.Incorrect
➤ The 50th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1984 amended Article 33 of the Constitution of India.
➤ Article 33 empowers the Parliament to modify the application of Fundamental Rights to members of:-
Armed Forces
-
Forces charged with maintenance of public order
-
Intelligence or counter-intelligence bureaus
-
Telecommunication systems set up for any of these forces
➤ The amendment extended this provision to also include persons employed in any bureau or organization established by the state for intelligence or counterintelligence purposes.
★ 50th Amendment Act Year – 1984
★ Amended Article – Article 33
★ Purpose – To protect national security by restricting Fundamental Rights for personnel in sensitive roles like intelligence.
★ Applies to – Armed forces, police, intelligence agencies, and telecommunication setups used by them. -
Question 24 of 26
24. Question
The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022, received the assent of the President on _____.
Correct
➤ The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022 was passed to address piracy threats on the high seas.
➤ It gives Indian authorities jurisdiction over piracy offences beyond India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
➤ The Act criminalizes acts of piracy, providing punishments such as life imprisonment or even death penalty in extreme cases.
➤ The Act implements India’s obligations under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
➤ The President of India gave assent to this Act on 31 January 2023.★ The Act received Presidential assent on 31 January 2023.
★ It gives effect to UNCLOS related to piracy.
★ It allows Indian courts to try piracy committed beyond Indian waters.
★ Punishment includes life imprisonment or death if piracy causes death.Incorrect
➤ The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022 was passed to address piracy threats on the high seas.
➤ It gives Indian authorities jurisdiction over piracy offences beyond India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
➤ The Act criminalizes acts of piracy, providing punishments such as life imprisonment or even death penalty in extreme cases.
➤ The Act implements India’s obligations under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
➤ The President of India gave assent to this Act on 31 January 2023.★ The Act received Presidential assent on 31 January 2023.
★ It gives effect to UNCLOS related to piracy.
★ It allows Indian courts to try piracy committed beyond Indian waters.
★ Punishment includes life imprisonment or death if piracy causes death. -
Question 25 of 26
25. Question
Which south-eastern Dravidian language has been approved by Odisha state to be included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, on 10th July 2023?
Correct
➤ On 10th July 2023, the Odisha state cabinet approved a proposal to recommend the inclusion of the Kui language in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Kui is a South-Eastern Dravidian language primarily spoken by the Kandha (Kondh) tribal community in Odisha.
➤ The language is traditionally written using the Odia script.
➤ Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule aims to aid in the preservation, promotion, and propagation of the Kui language and its associated culture.
➤ This move is expected to benefit over seven lakh Kui-speaking indigenous people in Odisha.★ Kui language is spoken by the Kandha tribal community in Odisha.
★ The Odisha state cabinet recommended its inclusion in the Eighth Schedule on 10th July 2023.
★ Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule provides official recognition and support for the language’s development.
★ Kui is traditionally written in the Odia script.
★ Over seven lakh people speak Kui in Odisha.
★ The inclusion aims to preserve and promote the language and culture.Incorrect
➤ On 10th July 2023, the Odisha state cabinet approved a proposal to recommend the inclusion of the Kui language in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
➤ Kui is a South-Eastern Dravidian language primarily spoken by the Kandha (Kondh) tribal community in Odisha.
➤ The language is traditionally written using the Odia script.
➤ Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule aims to aid in the preservation, promotion, and propagation of the Kui language and its associated culture.
➤ This move is expected to benefit over seven lakh Kui-speaking indigenous people in Odisha.★ Kui language is spoken by the Kandha tribal community in Odisha.
★ The Odisha state cabinet recommended its inclusion in the Eighth Schedule on 10th July 2023.
★ Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule provides official recognition and support for the language’s development.
★ Kui is traditionally written in the Odia script.
★ Over seven lakh people speak Kui in Odisha.
★ The inclusion aims to preserve and promote the language and culture. -
Question 26 of 26
26. Question
Which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with ‘rape’?
Correct
➤ Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines the offence of rape in India.
➤ It outlines various circumstances under which sexual intercourse is considered rape, such as without consent, against will, by coercion, or when the woman is under a certain age (below 18 years).
➤ The section also provides a detailed explanation of what constitutes consent, and what does not.★ Section 375 IPC defines the crime of rape.
★ It was significantly amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, after the Nirbhaya case.
★ The punishment for rape is detailed in Section 376 of IPC.Incorrect
➤ Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines the offence of rape in India.
➤ It outlines various circumstances under which sexual intercourse is considered rape, such as without consent, against will, by coercion, or when the woman is under a certain age (below 18 years).
➤ The section also provides a detailed explanation of what constitutes consent, and what does not.★ Section 375 IPC defines the crime of rape.
★ It was significantly amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, after the Nirbhaya case.
★ The punishment for rape is detailed in Section 376 of IPC.